Latest CPC Exam Real Tests Free Updated Today
CPC Real Exam Question Answers Updated [Nov 25, 2025]
NEW QUESTION # 58
A 35-year-old female has cancer in her left breast. The surgeon performs a mastectomy, removing the breast tissue, skin, pectoral muscles, and surrounding tissue, including the axillary and internal mammary lymph nodes.
Which mastectomy code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 59
Dr. Burns sees newborn baby James at the birthing center on the same day after the cesarean delivery. Dr.
Burns examined baby James, the maternal and newborn history, ordered appropriate blood test tests and hearing screening. He met with the family at the end of the exam.
How would Dr. Bums report his services?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dr. Burns is providing initial hospital or birthing center care for the evaluation and management of a normal newborn infant. CPT code 99460 is used to report initial hospital or birthing center care, per day, for evaluation and management of a normal newborn infant. This includes a comprehensive history, examination, and medical decision-making. The description of the service provided fits this CPT code accurately.
References: CPT Professional Edition (current year), AMA.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A patient has swelling in both arms and lymphangitis is suspected. She is in the outpatient radiology department for a lymphangiography of both arms.
What CPTcoding is correct?
- A. 75803-50
- B. 0
- C. 75801, 75803
- D. 75801-50
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient underwent a lymphangiography of both arms in an outpatient radiology setting to evaluate suspected lymphangitis.
CPTCode 75803 is for bilateral lymphangiography of an extremity. This code covers lymphangiography procedures where multiple images are obtained in the study of lymphatic channels and nodes in an extremity.
2. Modifier for Bilateral Procedure:
Modifier 50 is applied to indicate that the procedure was performed bilaterally (on both arms). This modifier appropriately reflects the bilateral nature of the lymphangiography.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 75801 is for lymphangiography of a single extremity and does not apply to bilateral procedures.
Code 75801-50 (option B) would indicate bilateral use of a code meant for a single extremity, which is not appropriate when a specific bilateral code, 75803, is available.
Option C, without the bilateral modifier, would not indicate that both arms were examined.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC guidelines specify using 75803 for bilateral lymphangiography procedures of extremities, and Modifier 50 is applied for clarity on bilateral involvement.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. 75803-50.
NEW QUESTION # 61
A patient has chronic cholesteatoma in the right middle ear. The otolaryngologist performed a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy, removing the middle ear cholesteatoma. Grafting technique was used to repair the eardrum with ossicular chain reconstruction.
What CPTcode is reported for this surgery?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The procedure involves a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy to remove a cholesteatoma in the middle ear. Additionally, the procedure includes ossicular chain reconstruction and grafting to repair the eardrum.
CPTCode 69646 is appropriate for tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy, including removal of the cholesteatoma and ossicular chain reconstruction. This code accurately describes the combination of tympanoplasty, radical mastoidectomy, and ossicular chain reconstruction, making it the correct choice.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 69643 describes a tympanoplasty with a simple mastoidectomy, which is not appropriate since a radical mastoidectomy was performed.
Code 69645 covers a tympanoplasty with radical mastoidectomy but does not include ossicular chain reconstruction, which was part of this procedure.
Code 69641 is for a tympanoplasty without mastoidectomy, making it incorrect for this case.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC and CPTguidelines, 69646 is the appropriate code when a tympanoplasty includes a radical mastoidectomy with ossicular chain reconstruction, as documented in this case.
Therefore, the correct answer based on CPTguidelines is D. 69646.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A cardiologist attempted to perform a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty of a totally occluded blood vessel. The surgeon stopped the procedure because of an anatomical problem creating risk for the patient and preventing performance of the catheterization.
What modifier is appended to the procedure code?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 63
The procedure is performed at an outpatient radiology department. From a left femoral access, the catheter is placed in the abdominal aorta and is then selectively placed in the celiac trunk and manipulated up into the common hepatic artery for an abdominal angiography. Dye is injected, and imaging is obtained. The provider performs the supervision and interpretation.
What CPT codes are reported?
- A. 36246, 75716-26
- B. 36246, 75741-26
- C. 36246, 75635-26
- D. 36246, 75726-26
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Procedure: Abdominal aorta catheterization and selective placement in the celiac trunk for angiography.
* CPT Codes:
* 36246: This code is for the catheter placement in the abdominal aorta.
* 75726-26: This code represents the abdominal angiography with supervision and interpretation, with the -26 modifier indicating the professional component.
* Code Selection Justification: The procedure involves the catheterization of the abdominal aorta and the specific imaging performed with supervision and interpretation.
References:
* AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
* HCPCS Level II (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 64
A 65-year-old gentleman presents for refill of medications and follow-up for his chronic conditions. The patient indicates good medicine compliance. No new symptoms or complaints.
Appropriate history and exam are obtained. Labs that were ordered from previous visit were reviewed and discussed with patient. The following are the diagnoses and treatment:
Hypokalemia - stable. Refill Potassium 20 MEQ
Hypertension - blood pressure remaining stable. Patient states home readings have been in line with goals.
Refill prescription Lisinopril.
Esophageal Reflux - Patient denies any new symptoms. Stable condition. Continue taking over the counter Prevacid oral capsules, 1 every day.
Patient is instructed to follow up in 3 months. Labs will be obtained prior to visit.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
* The patient presented for a follow-up visit for chronic conditions, including hypokalemia, hypertension, and esophageal reflux. During this visit, the physician reviewed and discussed lab results, managed prescriptions, and noted that there were no new symptoms or complaints.
* The level of service provided included an appropriate history and exam, as well as the management of multiple chronic conditions, which aligns with the criteria for CPT code 99214. This code is used for an established patient office or other outpatient visit that requires at least 2 of the following 3 key components: a detailed history, a detailed examination, and medical decision-making of moderate complexity.
References:
* CPT Professional Edition, AMA
* Evaluation and Management Coding Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 65
A patient with malignant lymphoma is administered the antineoplastic drug Rituximab 800 mg and then 100 mg of Benadryl.
Which HCPCS Level II codes are reported for both drugs administered intravenously?
- A. J9312, Q0163
- B. J9312 x 80, J1200 x 2
- C. J9312, J1200
- D. J9312 x 80, 00163 x 2
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 66
A 60-year-old male has three-vessel disease and supraventricular tachycardia which has been refractory to other management. He previously had pacemaker placement and stenting of LAD coronary artery stenosis, which has failed to solve the problem. He will undergo CABG with autologous saphenous vein and an extensive modified MAZE procedure to treat the tachycardia.
He is brought to the cardiac OR and placed in the supine position on the OR table. He is prepped and draped, and adequate endotracheal anesthesia is assured. A median sternotomy incision is made and cardiopulmonary bypass is initiated. The endoscope is used to harvest an adequate length of saphenous vein from his left leg.
This is uneventful and bleeding is easily controlled. The vein graft is prepared and cut to the appropriate lengths for anastomosis. Two bypasses are performed: one to the circumflex and another to the obtuse marginal. The left internal mammary is then freed up and it is anastomosed to the ramus, the first diagonal, and the LAD. An extensive maze procedure is then performed and the patient is weaned from bypass. At this point, the sternum is closed with wires and the skin is reapproximated with staples. The patient tolerated the procedure without difficulty and was taken to the PACU.
Choose the procedure codes for this surgery.
- A. 33535, 33259, 33519, 33508
- B. 33535, 33259 51, 33519-51, 33508-51
- C. 33533, 33257-51, 33519-51, 33508-51
- D. 33533, 33257, 33519, 33508
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CABG procedure involved multiple bypasses, with the use of autologous saphenous vein grafts and the left internal mammary artery, along with an extensive modified MAZE procedure. CPT code 33535 describes a coronary artery bypass using arterial grafts, including at least three coronary artery bypasses.
CPT code 33259-51 is for the MAZE procedure for supraventricular tachycardia, with the -51 modifier indicating multiple procedures. CPT code 33519-51 is for an additional vein graft, and CPT code 33508-51 describes the endoscopic harvesting of the vein.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Codes 33535, 33259-51, 33519-51, 33508-51
NEW QUESTION # 67
A patient complains of tarry, black stool, and epigastric tightness. An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is recommended to evaluate the source of the bleeding. The endoscope is inserted orally. The esophagus appears normal on scope insertion. No evidence of bleeding in the stomach. The scope is then passed into the duodenum, where a polyp is found and removed with hot biopsy forceps. No evidence of bleeding post procedure.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
An esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) was performed with the removal of a polyp using hot biopsy forceps.
* Procedure Description:
* An EGD was performed.
* A polyp was found in the duodenum and removed with hot biopsy forceps.
* CPT Coding:
* 43250: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, flexible, transoral; with removal of tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s) by hot biopsy forceps.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
* CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on endoscopic procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 68
A surgeon performed Mohs micrographic surgery on a lesion on the right arm. This required one stage with six tissue blocks.
What CPT@ codes are reported for the Mohs surgery?
- A. 85B2-335
- B. 17313, 17315
- C. 17311, 17312, 17315
- D. 17313, 17314, 17315
- E. 17311, 17315
Answer: E
Explanation:
For Mohs micrographic surgery, CPTcoding is based on the anatomic location of the lesion, the number of stages, and the number of tissue blocks per stage.
17311: This code is used for Mohs surgery on body areas such as the trunk, arms, or legs for the first stage.
17315: This is an add-on code used when more than five tissue blocks are examined in a single stage. Since this case involved six tissue blocks, 17315 is appropriate.
Explanation of incorrect answers:
A: 17313, 17314, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 applies to the head, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia, not the arm.
C: 17313, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 is not appropriate for the arm.
D: 17311, 17312, 17315: 17312 is used for additional stages beyond the first, which is not applicable here since only one stage was performed.
E: 85B2-335 is not a valid CPT code for Mohs surgery.
Thus, the correct answer is B. 17311, 17315, which accurately reflects a single-stage Mohs surgery with six tissue blocks on the arm.
NEW QUESTION # 69
A 74-year-old arrived at the ED experiencing bright red rectal bleeding when using the toilet. She does not have any abdominal pain, no nausea or vomiting. She has been undergoing dialysis for years due to end-stage renal failure and has a diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome with a platelet count of just 3,000. Her hemoglobin level, which was 10 at her dialysis session the previous day, dropped to 7. Abdominal films are negative. An urgent esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) was performed, and no active bleeding was found in the esophagus or the stomach.
However, the scope was passed into the upper duodenum which did reveal some oozing, and was controlled with cautery. Next, the patient was then positioned on her left side for a colonoscopy that extended from the colon to the ileum and into the lower duodenum, but no definitive sources of bleeding were found. Again, no outright bleeding sources were identified. A CRNA performed the anesthesia and documented PS III.
What CPTcodes are reported for the CRNA?
- A. 00731-QX-P3, 99100, 99140
- B. 00813-QZ-P3, 99100, 99140
- C. 00813-AA-P3, 99140
- D. 00731-QK-P3, 99140
Answer: B
Explanation:
In this case, a CRNA provided anesthesia for an urgent endoscopic procedure. To select the appropriate codes, we consider both the anesthesia code for the procedures performed and the modifiers relevant to the CRNA's role and the patient's physical status:
1. 00813: This CPTcode covers "Anesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures, endoscope introduced distal to duodenum," which is appropriate since the colonoscopy extended to the ileum and into the lower duodenum. 00731 (anesthesia for upper GI endoscopy) would not fully apply, as the main procedure targeted lower intestinal areas as well.
2. QZ Modifier: Indicates the anesthesia was performed by a CRNA without medical direction by an anesthesiologist, which aligns with the scenario where the CRNA independently administered anesthesia.
3. P3 Modifier: Reflects the physical status of "severe systemic disease" for this patient, as she has both end- stage renal failure and myelodysplastic syndrome.
4. 99100: This code is added to reflect "special anesthesia circumstances" given the patient's extreme frailty (platelet count of 3,000), which warrants additional consideration.
5. 99140: Used for emergency conditions, which applies here due to the urgent nature of the bleeding investigation.
Thus, 00813-QZ-P3, 99100, 99140 accurately reflects the anesthesia services provided by the CRNA in this emergency scenario.
NEW QUESTION # 70
A 57-year-old woman with a physical status of 3 received general endotracheal anesthesia for a panniculectomy. The anesthesiologist personally performed the entire anesthesia service.
What CPT@ coding is reported for the anesthesia?
- A. 00800-AA-P3
- B. 00802, 99140-AA-P3
- C. 00800-P3, 99140-P3
- D. 00802-AA-P3
Answer: A
Explanation:
To code for anesthesia services, we select the correct CPTanesthesia code based on the procedure, modifiers, and physical status of the patient:
00800 represents "Anesthesia for procedures on the lower abdomen not otherwise specified," which includes procedures like a panniculectomy. The code 00802 is not appropriate here because it is used for lower abdominal procedures involving "major lower abdominal vessels," which does not apply to a panniculectomy.
AA Modifier indicates that the anesthesia services were personally performed by the anesthesiologist, as stated in the scenario.
P3 Modifier reflects a physical status of 3, which indicates a patient with a "severe systemic disease," matching the patient's documented condition.
The emergency modifier 99140 is not appropriate here, as there is no indication that the procedure was performed under emergency conditions.
Thus, the correct answer is 00800-AA-P3.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A physician prescribes carbamazepine to treat a patient with epileptic seizures. After six months, the physician performs a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of the drug in the patient.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is used for the six month-evaluation?
- A. 80157, G40.909
- B. 80156, G40.909
- C. 80156, R56.9
- D. 80157, R56.9
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct CPT code for a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of carbamazepine is 80156. The ICD-10-CM code G40.909 is used for epileptic seizures, not otherwise specified, which aligns with the patient's condition being treated for seizures.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 72
A 45-year-old female presents to the ED with chest pain. The provider has an Albumin Cobalt Binding Test to determine if the chest pain is ischemic in nature.
That lab test is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Procedure: Albumin Cobalt Binding (ACB) test to determine ischemic nature of chest pain.
* CPT Code:
* 83857: This code is used for the Albumin Cobalt Binding test.
* Code Selection Justification: The ACB test specifically measures ischemia-modified albumin, making
83857 the appropriate code for this laboratory test.
References:
* AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
* HCPCS Level II (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 73
A patient that delivered her second child vaginally has a history of having a previous cesarean delivery for the first child.
What CPTcode is reported for the delivery of the second child with antepartum care and postpartum care with the same provider?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient delivered her second child vaginally after having a previous cesarean delivery for her first child.
This scenario describes a Vaginal Birth After Cesarean (VBAC).
CPTCode 59610 is specific for a vaginal delivery after a previous cesarean delivery, including antepartum and postpartum care with the same provider, which matches this case exactly.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 59410 covers only vaginal delivery with postpartum care but does not include a history of previous cesarean delivery, so it is not appropriate for a VBAC.
Code 59400 is for routine vaginal delivery with antepartum and postpartum care but, again, does not account for a previous cesarean, so it does not apply in this VBAC scenario.
Code 59614 is for a VBAC but does not include antepartum care, making it incomplete for this scenario since the question specifies that antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care were provided by the same provider.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC and CPTguidelines indicate that 59610 should be used for a complete VBAC service that includes antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care by the same provider.
Therefore, based on CPTguidelines, the correct answer is B. 59610.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Which entity offers compliance program guidance to form the basis of a voluntary compliance program for a provider practice?
- A. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
- B. Office for Civil Rights (OCR)
- C. Office of Inspector General (OIG)
- D. American Medical Association (AMA)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 75
Miranda is in her provider's office for follow up of her diabetes. Her blood sugars remain at goal with continuing her prescribed medications.
When referring to the MDM Table in the CPTcode book for number and complexity of problems addressed at the encounter, what type of problem is this considered?
- A. Stable, chronic illness
- B. Acute, uncomplicated illness or injury
- C. Minimal problem
- D. Stable, acute illness
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Problem Type Selection:
Miranda is following up on her diabetes, which is a chronic condition. Her blood sugars are controlled, indicating that the condition is stable with her current medication regimen.
Stable, chronic illness is defined in the CPTMDM (Medical Decision Making) Table as a chronic condition that is under control and not currently worsening, even if ongoing management is required. This aligns with the patient's diabetes being well-managed with her prescribed medications.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
A: Acute, uncomplicated illness or injury is not applicable as diabetes is a chronic condition, not an acute issue.
B: Minimal problem refers to conditions that are minor or self-limited and typically require little to no treatment, which does not apply to chronic conditions like diabetes.
D: Stable, acute illness would refer to an acute condition that has stabilized, whereas diabetes is a chronic condition, not acute.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to the CPTMDM Table, a "Stable, chronic illness" is the correct classification for a follow-up encounter on a controlled chronic condition like diabetes.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. Stable, chronic illness.
NEW QUESTION # 76
A patient is diagnosed with diabetic polyneuropathy.
Using ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, what ICD-10-CM coding is reported?
- A. E11.42
- B. E11.9, G62.9
- C. E10.42
- D. E10.9, G62.9
Answer: A
Explanation:
Diabetic polyneuropathy is coded as E11.42, which indicates type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic polyneuropathy. The ICD-10-CM guidelines direct that when a patient has both diabetes and polyneuropathy, a single combination code is used to capture both conditions.References: ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter
4: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases (E00-E89), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.a.6.
NEW QUESTION # 77
View MR 001394
MR 001394
Operative Report
Procedure: Excision of 11 cm back lesion with rotation flap repair.
Preoperative Diagnosis: Basal cell carcinoma
Postoperative Diagnosis: Same
Anesthesia: 1% Xylocaine solution with epinephrine warmed and buffered and injected slowly through a 30-gauge needle for the patient's comfort.
Location: Back
Size of Excision: 11 cm
Estimated Blood Loss: Minimal
Complications: None
Specimen: Sent to the lab in saline for frozen section margin control.
Procedure: The patient was taken to our surgical suite, placed in a comfortable position, prepped and draped, and locally anesthetized in the usual sterile fashion. A #15 scalpel blade was used to excise the basal cell carcinoma plus a margin of normal skin in a circular fashion in the natural relaxed skin tension lines as much as possible The lesion was removed full thickness including epidermis, dermis, and partial thickness subcutaneous tissues. The wound was then spot electro desiccated for hemorrhage control. The specimen was sent to the lab on saline for frozen section.
Rotation flap repair of defect created by foil thickness frozen section excision of basal cell carcinoma of the back. We were able to devise a 12 sq cm flap and advance it using rotation flap closure technique. This will prevent infection, dehiscence, and help reconstruct the area to approximate the situation as it was prior to surgical excision diminishing the risk of significant pain and distortion of the anatomy in the area. This was advanced medially to close the defect with 5 0 Vicryl and 6-0 Prolene stitches.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 14001, 11606-51
- D. 14001, 11606-51, 12034-51
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 78
According to the Repair (Closure) CPT guidelines, what type of repair is reported when a single layer closure includes copious irrigation and extensive cleaning to remove particulate matter?
- A. Complex repair
- B. Intermediate repair
- C. Simple repair
- D. Simple repair plus a code for irrigation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 79
A 45-year-old female presents to the ED with chest pain. The provider has an Albumin Cobalt Binding Test to determine if the chest pain is ischemic in nature.
That lab test is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 80
In medical terminology, suffixes indicate the procedure, condition, disorder, or disease.
Which term contains a suffix?
- A. hypotension
- B. ambidextrous
- C. malaise
- D. neuralgia
Answer: D
Explanation:
The suffix in medical terminology provides information about a condition, procedure, disorder, or disease.
The term "neuralgia" contains the suffix "-algia," which refers to pain, indicating a painful condition of the nerves. In contrast:
A: malaise has no identifiable suffix related to a specific medical condition or disease.
B: ambidextrous has no suffix indicating a disease, condition, or procedure.
D: hypotension includes the prefix "hypo-" (indicating low), but the core term "tension" refers to pressure without an additional suffix specific to condition.
Thus, "neuralgia" is the correct answer as it directly includes a suffix ("-algia") that denotes a pain-related condition in medical terms.
NEW QUESTION # 81
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