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PRMIA 8011 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: CVA and DVA | - Valuation adjustments - Measurement and interpretation |
| Topic 2: Credit Derivatives and Securitization | - Securitization structures and process - Credit derivatives instruments |
| Topic 3: SA-CCR and Regulatory Frameworks | - Standardized Approach for Counterparty Credit Risk |
| Topic 4: Counterparty Risk | - Definition and sources of counterparty risk - Mitigation techniques (netting, collateral) |
| Topic 5: Credit Portfolio Management | - Portfolio credit risk measurement - Risk concentration and diversification |
| Topic 6: Classic Credit Risk | - Credit products and lifecycle
|
| Topic 7: Modern Credit Risk Modeling | - Credit VaR and loss distribution simulation - PD/LGD modeling frameworks |
PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:
Which of the following is not a permitted approach under Basel II for calculating operational riskcapital
- A. the basic indicator approach
- B. the advanced measurement approach
- C. the internal measurement approach
- D. the standardized approach
Correct Answer: C 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Pass4training members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
If two bonds with identical credit ratings, coupon and maturity but from different issuers trade at different spreads to treasury rates, which of the following is a possible explanation:
I. The bonds differ in liquidity
II. Events have happened that have changed investor perceptions but these are not yet reflected in the ratings III. The bonds carry different market risk IV. The bonds differ in their convexity
- A. I, II and IV
- B. III and IV
- C. I and II
- D. II and IV
Correct Answer: C 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Pass4training members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
A corporate bond has a cumulative probability of default equal to 20% in the first year, and 45% in the second year. What is the monthly marginal probability of default for the bond in the second year, conditional on there being no default in the first year?
- A. 15.00%
- B. 2.60%
- C. 3.07%
- D. 31.25%
Correct Answer: C 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Pass4training members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
Which of the following techniques is used to generate multivariate normal random numbers that are correlated?
- A. Markov process
- B. Cholesky decomposition of the correlation matrix
- C. Simulation
- D. Pseudo random number generator
Correct Answer: B 🗳️
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The 10-day VaR of a diversified portfolio is $100m. What is the 20-day VaR of the same portfolio assuming the market shows a trend and the autocorrelation between consecutive periods is 0.2?
- A. 141.42
- B. 100
- C. 200
- D. 154.92
Correct Answer: D 🗳️
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